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Examination Paper: Health and Hospital Management
1
IIBM Institute of Business Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper MM.100

                           Hospital Administration

Section A: Objective Type (30 marks)
· This section consists of Multiple choices questions & Short notes type questions.
· Answer all the questions.
· Part One questions carries 1 mark each & Part Two questions carry 5 marks each.
Part One:
Multiple Choices:
1. A method of collaborative work in which visual display of information on flip charts or other
media to which other group member can use is:
a. Decision matrices
b. Multivoting
c. Boarding
d. Brainstorming
2. A tool for Data collection which summarize perception of a large sample of people is:
a. Surveys
b. Interviews
c. Check sheet
d. Data sheets
3. Members of Inspection control committee are:
a. Microbiologist, O.T. in charge, Medical Superintendent
b. Representative from Nursing Service, CSSD in charge, Representative from major clinical
department
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
4. MRD stands for:
a. Medical Records Department
b. Medicine Records Department
c. Medicine Release Department
d. None of the above
5. Format for appraisal in which rank order is establish of employees based on their relative merit:
a. Forced Distribution Technique
b. Graphic Rating Scale
c. Ranking methods
d. Free Written Ratings
Examination Paper: Health and Hospital Management
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
6. Analytical technique in Materials Management in which all items in inventory on the basis of
annual usage time cost is:
a. FSN Analysis
b. ABC Analysis
c. VED Analysis
d. None of the above
7. Planning tool used in Quality Management in which the items are written on individual cards and
displayed on a flip chart:
a. Relations Diagram
b. Process Decision Program chart
c. Affinity Diagram
d. Activity Network Diagram
8. Method of filing of Medical records in which involves filing of records in exact chronological
order according to unit / serial number:
a. Middle Digit filing
b. Terminal Digit filing
c. Straight Numeric filing
d. None of the above
9. Type of hospital in which the number of beds is over 300 beds is known as:
a. Large hospital
b. Medium sized hospital
c. Small hospital
d. None of the above
10. Meeting in hospital whose purpose is to pass on information received from agencies is:
a. Informative Meeting
b. Consultative Meeting
c. Executive Meeting
d. None of the above
Part Two:
1. What are the factors affecting “Retraining” in a hospital?
2. What is the optimum composition of the Drugs and Therapeutics?
3. What do you understand by outdoor patient department?
4. Write down the different members of Appointment committee of the hospital.
END OF SECTION A
Examination Paper: Health and Hospital Management
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Section B: Caselets (40 marks)
· This section consists of Caselets.
· Answer all the questions.
· Each Caselet carries 20 marks.
· Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 words).
Caselet 1
Rakesh and Gagan were two brothers who had graduate in Medicine in the year 1979. Both
established themselves as successful practitioners. In 1992, they decided to set up their own hospital
as both were familiar with the nitty-gritty of the profession after spending a decade as successful
practitioners. In the year 1994, the concept was concretized when three floors Arogya Hospital with a
bed capacity of 60 came into existence at Gwalior. The facilities provided by the hospital were
pathology, X-ray, blood bank and ICU. In the year 1998, the number of beds was increased to 100
with the addition of a fourth floor. In the year 2005, a fifth floor was added and the hospital started
offering services like radiology, 3D spiral, C. Tscan, colourdoppler, pathology, blood bank, C.C.U.,
O.T., maternity unit, emergency and trauma services, in-patient accommodation, canteen,
telecommunication and entertainment.
The hospital had 35 nurses and 55 class four employees. The main task of the class four
employees was to maintain the cleanliness of the hospital. Besides this, they were also entrusted with
the task of sponging, bed setting and shifting of the patients. Salary paid to these employees was
between Rs. 1200/- to Rs. 1800/- per month. The hospital staff was divided into different classes of
employees. Class one comprised of MBBS, MD, MS, and Administrative Officers. Class three
comprised of Technicians and Nurses. Class four comprised of Ayabais, Sweepers and Guards.
Hospital had 11 full time doctors, out of whom 7 were duty doctors (MBBS), 2 full time MD for ICU
and 2 full time in-house surgeons (MS). Besides this, the hospital had 50 visiting doctors who
operated on a turnkey basis. These doctors had their own clinics in different parts of the city and as
per requirement; they admitted their patents in the hospital. There was a mutual agreement between
the doctors and the hospital that the hospital would charge the patients and out of it the doctors would
receive their fees along with a percentage from the hospital share. The patients treated by the hospital
were patients requiring intensive care and minor illnesses. Out of the cases reported in the hospital,
60-75% were maternity and were referred to the hospital by leading gynecologists of the city, Dr.
Savita and Dr. Manorama. To help the doctors in the treatment of patients, work-instructions for
Resident Doctors, Supervisors, Ward boys / Ayabais and Sweeper boys/ bais were prepared by the
newly appointed Hospital-Administrator Priya. These instructions were prepared in English and were
hung on the walls of the enquiry counter. After a span of one month, Priya resigned from the hospital
on account of some personal reasons.
By the end of the year 2004, Ritu, a fresh post-graduate in Hospital-Administration from
Gwalior, was appointed as an Administrative Officer or take charge of the overall activities of the
hospital. Her role was to monitor the activities of employees of class three and four and various other
activities related to the functioning of the Hospital. The first task before her was to improve the
cleanliness of the hospital. She found that the toilets were not cleaned properly and the room hygiene
was dismal. She started making regular visits to all the wards and rooms in the hospital to observe and
monitor the employees lacked a human touch. To add to this, the patients also complained that the
employees demanded money for the services. After analyzing the situation, she came to the
conclusion that lack of motivation among the class four employees was one of the major factors
responsible for the pathetic condition prevailing in the hospital. Lack of motivation among the class
four employees was also visible in the form of high employee turnover, work negligence, absenteeism
and complaining behavior. High absenteeism among the class four employees resulted in work
Examination Paper: Health and Hospital Management
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
overload for sincere employees, as they were forced to work in the next shift. This was a regular
feature in the hospital as a result of which employees often remained stressed and therefore, less
committed towards their work. Although, they were being provided with dinner and snacks at the
expense of the hospital, as a gesture of goodwill for those who worked over time for the hospital. She
also found that the workers were not reporting for their duty on time, despite their arrival in the
hospital on time.
The second reason, which she identified for lack of hygienic condition in the hospital, was that
the visiting hours for the visitors were not specified, so there was a continuous flow of visitors round
the clock, which hampered and affected the cleaning activity of the hospital. It was found that the
patients’ rooms were always full of visitors who would not mind taking their meals in the room/ward.
She felt that there was no solution to visitors’ problem, as this was an integral part of the promotional
strategy of the management. She also found that the work-instructions given to the hospital-staff was
in English language and it was difficult for class four employees to understand them. Ritu translated
all these instructions in Hindi so that class four employees could understand and implement them.
Ritu had the daunting task to reduce the absenteeism and make the employees more committed to
their work and felt that a reward of Rs. 200, if given to an employee who remained present for 31
days could perhaps motivate the employee to remain regular at the work place. Further, to motivate to
perform, she decided to systematize the performance appraisal system by identifying performers and
non-performers. This being her first job, she was apprehensive about performance appraisal. The
employees were to be classified into three groups A, B and C, ‘A’ was for high performers, ‘B’ was
for average performers and ‘C’ was for poor performers. It was decided that the employees in the
grade ‘A’ would receive the highest increment followed by ‘B’ and ‘C’. To make the performance
appraisal objective, she identified various activities on which the employees could be appraised. To
make the performance appraisal system more objective, a two-tier appraisal system was developed by
her. In the first phase, the employees were to be rated regularly on the identified activities by patients
and their attendants. In the second phase, observation of doctors and nurses was to be considered.
Although Ritu had full cooperation from the hospital management, yet she was apprehensive about
the employee’ acceptance of the new system. She had to wait and watch.
Questions:
1. Critically evaluate the factors identified by Ritu for enhancing organizational effectiveness.
2. Describe a performance appraisal system that you will recommend to Ritu for evaluating the
employees.
Caselet 2
The management of a hospital, faced with a resource crunch embarked on a cost containment
programme. Instructions were issued to various clinical, supportive and utility services to identify the
areas where cost containment could be effectively implemented without compromising with the
patient care facilities.
The hospital had both the centralized and the decentralized purchasing system. The officer-incharge
of the Emergency Department of the hospital, Dr. Systematic was a qualified and trained
hospital administrator. He systematically commenced analysis of the various activities and procedures
in vogue in the Emergency Department.
Dr. Systematic found out that the Emergency Department in addition to the glass syringes
purchased 9000 disposable syringes per annum. The interval of ordering was 30 days. The cost of
Examination Paper: Health and Hospital Management
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
each disposable was Rs. 20/-. The ordering cost per order was Rs. 15/- and the carrying cost were
15% of the average inventory per year. He calculated the Economic Order Quantity, lot size of
inventory per month, storage cost and other inventory related costs and analyzed the optimum interval
of ordering. He forwarded these results along with the other cost containment measures of the
Emergency Department to the hospital management. The recommendations of Dr. Systematic were
implemented and used as a model for other departments of the hospital. Dr. Systematic for effective
analysis and appraisal was honoured with the Doctor of the year award by the Hospital Management.
Questions:
1. What are the assumptions made by Dr. Systematic for their inventory model?
2. Do you recommend any further suggestion for inventory costs in a hospital?
END OF SECTION B
Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)
· This section consists of Applied Theory Questions.
· Answer all the questions.
· Each question carries 15 marks.
· Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 200 to 250 words).
1. Write in brief about structure and function of Hospital Organization.
2. Write in brief about process of Material Management in a hospital.
END OF SECTION C
Examination Paper: Health and Hospital Management
6
IIBM Institute of Business Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper MM.100
Principles of Hospital Administration and Planning
Section A: Objective Type (30 marks)
· This section consists of Multiple choices and short notes type questions.
· Answer all the questions.
· Part One questions carry 1 mark each and Part two questions carry 5 marks each.
Part One:
Multiple Choices:
1. Public Health Services are concerned with the:
a. Control of communicable diseases
b. Maternal and child health
c. Occupational health and reduction of health hazards
d. All of the above
2. The service of an OPD is affected by the:
a. System
b. Arrival pattern
c. Appointment System
d. None of the above
3. CSSD stands for:
a. Central Sterile Supply Department
b. Circular Sterile Supply Department
c. Central Site Survey Department
d. All of the above
4. ICU Incharge responsibility should cover:
a. Continuity of care
b. Administrative matters
c. Care and maintenance of equipments
d. All of the above
5. According to which method one nurse is assigned to a group of patient to provide total nursing
care:
a. Functional Assignment Method
b. Team Nursing Method
c. Group Assignment Method
d. Primary Nursing Method
Examination Paper: Health and Hospital Management
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
6. Break-even point analysis, analyses the relationship between revenue and ______.
a. Variable Cost
b. Expenses
c. Cost
d. Volume
7. MRI stands for:
a. Medical Resonance Imaging
b. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
c. Medical Reasonable Imaging
d. None of the above
8. Ultrasonography waves are mechanical pressures waves whose frequency ranging from:
a. 10-100 MHz
b. 2-50 MHz
c. 100-150 MHz
d. 2-10- MHz
9. The Hospital laboratory works generally falls under the which divisions:
a. Hematology, cytology & Microbiology
b. Clinical Chemistry, Histopathology & Biochemistry
c. Urine and stool analysis
d. All of the above
10. ____________ is a dry type filter with a rigid casing enclosing the full depth of accordion type
filter pleats.
a. OT Suite
b. HEPA filter
c. Cleaner’s closet
d. Electrical outlets
Part Two:
1. What are the importances of Outpatient Services?
2. Define Hospital as a Social System.
3. What are the main functions of the Nursing Services?
4. Explain the classification of Ward Accommodation?
END OF SECTION A
Examination Paper: Health and Hospital Management
8
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Section B: Caselets (40 marks)
· This section consists of Caselets.
· Answer all the questions.
· Each Caselet carries 20 marks.
· Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 words).
Caselet 1
Mr. Naveen Desai is the current president of Medicare Memorial Hospital’s board of trustees.
Medicare Memorial is a 200-bed voluntary short-term general hospital serving an area of
approximately 50,000 persons. Mr. Naveen has just begun a meeting with the administrator of the
hospital, Mr. Tarun. The purpose of the meeting is to seek an acceptable solution to an apparent
conflict-of-authority problem within the hospital between Mr. Tarun and the chief of surgery, Dr.
Mathew.
The problem was brought to Mr. Naveen’s attention by Dr. Rajeev. The problem that concerned Dr.
Mathew involved the operating room supervisor, Ms. Meetha. Ms. Meetha schedules the hospital’s
operating suite in accordance with policies that she “believes” to have been established by the
hospital’s administration. One source of irritation to the surgeons is her attitude that maximum
utilization must be made of the hospital’s operating rooms if hospitals cost are to be reduced. She
therefore schedules in such a way that operating room idle time is minimized. Surgeons complain that
the operating schedule often does not permit them sufficient time to complete a surgical procedure in
the manner they think desirable. More often than not, insufficient time is allowed between operations
for effective preparation of the operating room for the next procedure. Such scheduling, the surgical
staff maintains, contributes to low-quality patient care. Furthermore, some of the surgeons have
complained that Ms. Meetha shows favoritism in her scheduling, allowing some doctors ore use of the
operating suite than others.
The situation reached a crisis when Dr. Mathew following an explosive confrontation with s. Meetha
made an appeal to the hospital administrator, who in turn informed Dr. Mathew that discharging
nurses was an administrative prerogative. In effect, Dr. Mathew, was told he did not have authority
over any issue affecting medical practice and good patient care in Medicare Hospital. He considered
this as a medical problem and threatened to take the matter to the hospital’s board of trustees.
As the meeting between Mr. Naveen and Mr. Tarun began, Mr. Tarun explained his position on the
problem. He stressed the point that a hospital administrator is legally responsible for patient care in
the hospital. He also contended that quality patient care cannot be achieved unless the board of
trustees authorized the administrator to make decisions, develop programs, formulate policies and
implement procedures. While listening to Mr. Tarun, Mr. Naveen recalled the position belligerently
taken by Dr. Mathew, who had contended that surgical and medical doctors holding staff privileges at
Medicare would never allow a ‘layman’ to make decisions impinging on medical practice. Dr.
Mathew also had said that Mr. Tarun should be told to restrict his activities to fund raising, financing,
maintenance – administrative problems rather than medical problems. Dr. Mathew had then requested
that Mr. Naveen clarify in a definitive manner the lines of authority at Medicare Memorial.
As Mr. Naveen ended his meeting with Mr. Traun, the severity of the problem was unmistakably
clear to him, but the solution remained quite unclear, Mr. Naveen knew a decision was required – and
soon.
Questions:
1. According to you, what conflict had developed at Medicare Memorial Hospital?
2. What should Mr. Naveen do?
Examination Paper: Health and Hospital Management
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Caselet 2
Outpatient service is one of the rapidly growing services of the hospital. Therefore in many instances,
outpatient departments built in the recent past have been found to be too small over the years because
of increasing demands, growth of new specialties and the desirability of carrying out an increasing
range of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures on outpatient basis. The department must, therefore,
be planned for a substantial capacity for growth.
In the general hospital, the outpatient department will consist of general outpatient clinic as well as
specialty clinics, in the form of a polyclinic. The structural requirement of outpatient department
incorporating a polyclinic will depend upon the extent of the services provided. The primary aim
should be to provide large floor areas free of structural members to give the maximum adaptability
for changing requirements.
In many hospitals, poorly planned physical relationship of the OPD are responsible for increasing the
work of staff and causing embarrassment and unnecessary movements for patients. On outpatients
visits, patent flow usually progresses from Enquiry and Registration to Waiting, then to examination
rooms and thereafter to investigation facilities, and lastly the pharmacy. In comparison to the other
departments of the hospital, viz. wards, diagnostic and service departments combined, the percentage
of space occupied by the outpatient department of most existing public hospitals varies from 12 to 18
per cent.
The area required for the outpatient department should be adequate to accommodate the reception and
waiting hall, waiting rooms, registration and outpatient medical records, clinics, toilet facilities and
the injection and dressing room, pharmacy, minor OT and circulation routes. Scales of space for
outpatient department can hardly be standardized in view of the varied requirements and range of
services provided. For planning premises, half square foot for each expected annual outpatient visits
is considered to provide adequate space in case of most general hospitals. A hospital expecting 500
outpatients per day over 300 normal working days in a year would thus require upto 75000 square
feet (6975 sqm) of space for its outpatient department.
Questions:
1. What will be procedures that could be performed on outpatient basis?
2. Outpatient Services is important in Hospitals. Why?
END OF SECTION B
Examination Paper: Health and Hospital Management
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)
· This section consists of Applied Theory Questions.
· Answer all the questions.
· Each question carries 15 marks.
· Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 200 to 250 words).
1. What are the role and functions of an ICU?
2. What are the Ethical and Legal Aspects of Hospital Administration?
END OF SECTION C
S-3-010711

IIBM semester 2 Answers

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Examination Paper
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper MM.50
Corporate Governance
Section A: OBJECTIVE TYPE (20 marks)
• This section consists of Multiple choice questions.
• Answer all the questions.
• Questions carry 1 mark each.
1. In the second version of McKinsey’s model called “the Central model” governance chain is
represented by
a. Well-developed equity market & dispersed ownership
b. Underdeveloped equity market & concentrated ownership
c. Well-developed equity market & concentrated ownership
d. Underdeveloped equity market & dispersed ownership
2. Corporate governance refers to a combination of law, rules, regulations and
a. Value
b. Wealth
c. Voluntary practices
d. Customer Satisfaction
3. ____________, is one of the major tools. Corporations use to direct persuasive communication to
target buyers & the public.
a. Advertising
b. Media
c. Press
d. None
4. Policy adopted by the monetary authority with respect to the supply of money is called
a. Monetary Policy
b. Fiscal Policy
c. Budgetary Policy
d. Economic Policy
5. Cash reserve requirements refer to the
a. Purchase & Sale of government securities & other approved securities by the Central bank.
b. Changes in bank rate by the Central Bank
c. That portion of bank’s total cash reserves which they are statutorily required to hold with the
RBI.
Examination Paper
IIBM Institute of Business Management 2
d. The particular level of liquid ity maintained by commercial banks.
6. This committee was set up in January 1995 to identify good practices by the confederation of
British Industry (CBI)
a. The Paul Ruthman Committee
b. The Greenbury Committee, 1995
c. Cadbury Committee, 1995
d. The Hampel Committee,1995
7. ______________, plays a significant role in the growth of the corporate sector by providing them
finance for their Operations.
a. Investors
b. Bank
c. Organization
d. None
8. The first stock market scam was one which involved both the bond and equity markets in India.
a. MNC’s efforts at Consolidation of ownership, 1993
b. Vanishing Companies Scam, 1993-94
c. M. S. Shoes, 1994
d. Harshad Mehta scam, 1992
9. Debt purchasers provide finance in return for a promised stream of payments & a variety of other
convenants pertaining to corporate behavior, such as the value and risk of corporate assets. These
are called
a. Concentrated Debt
b. Diffused Debt
c. Creditor Incentives
d. Debt Collection
10. A person having control over the direction, conduct, management or superintendence of then
affairs of a company is called
a. Director
b. Co- director
c. Board members
d. None
11. A director who is not duly appointed but acts as a director is known as a
a. Fraudulent Person
b. De Facto
c. De Jure
d. None
12. This type of auditors are usually referred to as a CPA (Certified Public Accountants) firms
Examination Paper
IIBM Institute of Business Management 3
a. Internal auditors
b. Independent auditors
c. Government auditors
d. None
13. To introduce corporate governance practices in the banking sector the recommendations of the
working group of directors of financial Institutions known as the
a. Ganguly Group
b. Policy Implication
c. Government Control
d. Withdrawal effects
14. It is a manipulative method where one buy the power or the influence of others persons in order
to satisfy his selfish need.
a. Coercion
b. Tax Evasion
c. Bribery
d. Insider Trading
15. This model supports the idea of multiple interests of stakeholders rather than shareholders interest
alone
a. The Social Entity Theory
b. Trusteeship Model
c. The Pluralistic Model
d. Social Responsibility
16. This policy was released in August by the Ministry of Environment & Forests (MOEF) for
Public discussion
a. The National Environment Policy, 2004
b. Draft Policy
c. Biodiversity Conservation
d. Forest & wildlife Conservation
17. Out of the following which Committee appointed to examine all current Capital market
regulations & to suggest amendments to them
a. SEBI
b. Dhanuka Committee
c. Primary Market Reforms
d. None
18. Out of the following which one sentence is the true
a. It lays down the framework for creating long-term trust between companies & the external
provides of capital
b. It rationalizes the management and monitoring of risks a firm faces globally
Examination Paper
IIBM Institute of Business Management 4
c. It does not limits the liability of the top management 7 directors by carefully articulating the
decision making process
d. It never ensures the integrity of financial reports.
19. Out of the following which is the responsibility of an Auditor
a. Whether loans & advances made by the company on the basis of security have been properly
secured.
b. Whether loans & advances made by the company have been shown as deposits.
c. Whether personal expenses have been charged to revenue account
d. He has to ensure that his work involves exercise of judgment.
20. This theory assumes that managers are basically trustworthy and attach significant value to their
own personal reputation
a. Agency Theory
b. Stewardship Theory
c. Stakeholder Approaches
d. Sociological Theory
SECTION B: Short Notes (10 marks)
• This section consists of short notes.
• Answer all the questions.
• Each Short Note carries 5 marks.
1. What is clause 49?
2. Explain Board of Directors & Corporate Governance?
SECTION C: APPLIED THEORY (20 marks)
• This section consists of Long Questions.
• Answer all the questions.
• Each question carries 10 marks.
• Detailed information should from the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 words).
END OF SECTION B
END OF SECTION A
Examination Paper
IIBM Institute of Business Management 5
1. Banks are also using concept of Corporate Governance. Explain why Corporate Governance is
widely used in Banks. Also state few sound Corporate Governance Practices.
2. What is ethics & state why ethics is necessary in Business and also state the importance and need
of business ethics?
-----------------------------------------------------------***----------------------------------------------------------------
END OF SECTION C

iibm energy management, renewable energy, knowledge management answers

                      IIBM semester 3 answers contact:-

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Assignment Papers of

1. Energy Management

1. Renewable Energy

1. Knowledge Management

1. Computer Fundamentals

Examination Paper of Semester III

IIBM Institute of Business Management

Semester-III Examination Paper MM.100

Knowledge Management

Section A: Objective Type (30 marks)

• This section consists of Mixed Type questions & Short Answer type questions.

• Answer all the questions.

• Part One questions carry 1 mark each & Part Two questions carry 5 marks each.

Part One:

Multiple Choices:

1. UCC stands for

a. Universal Commercial Code

b. Uniform Commercial Code

c. Uniq Commercial Code

d. United Commercial Code

2. E-business connects critical business systems and constituencies directly via

a. Internet

b. Extranet

c. Intranet

d. All of the above

3. Unusable rule are also called as

a. User rule

b. Conflicting rule

c. Subsumed rule

d. None of the above

4. Fact in knowledge codification refers to

a. Value of an object or a slot

b. Codification scheme

c. Both (a) & (b)

d. Filling of slots

5. An individual with skills & solutions that work some of the time but not all of the time is

a. Scribe

b. Validity

c. Novice

d. None of the above

Examination Paper of Semester III

6. CBR is

a. Case based reasoning

b. Case based reliability

c. Case based repository

d. None of the above

7. An unskilled employee trying to learn or gain some understanding of the captures knowledge is a

a. Pupil user

b. Tutor user

c. People user

d. None of the above

8. A rule of thumb based on years of experience is called

a. Procedural rule

b. Tacit knowledge

c. Heuristic

d. None of the above

9. Episodic knowledge is

a. Is knowledge based on the fundamentals structure functions & behaviour of objects

b. Is knowledge based on experimental information or episodes

c. Is knowledge based on the unrelated facts

d. None of the above

10. A directory that points to people, documents and repositories is

a. Knowledge map

b. Knowledge codification

c. Rapid prototyping

d. None of the above

Part Two:

1. Write short note on “KM Life Cycle”?

2. Write short note on “The Knowing Doing Gap”?

3. What is “The Malpractice Factor”?

4. What is knowledge creation?

END OF SECTION A

Examination Paper of Semester III

Section B: Caselets (40 marks)

• This section consists of Caselets.

• Answer all the questions.

• Each caselet carries 20 marks.

• Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 200 to 250 words).

Caselet 1

This case is based on an actual incident which took place in an Army Unit deployed in field area.

A part of a Battery (about 1/4 of an Artillery Regiment) was deployed in a snow bound high

altitude area of Kashmir. This was the first time, an artillery unit was deployed in an area with

roads and tracks still under development. Preparation of this area for such a deployment needed a

lot of digging for guns, pits for ammunition storage, living place of the personnel, slit trenches

and weapon pits for local defence against any possible enemy/terrorists’ attack on the position,

place for storage of rations, cook-house and communication trenches, etc.

The total strength of the party deployed there was

a) Officer - 1 (Second Lieutenant with about one year service)

b) Junior Commissioned Officer (JCO) - 1

c) Jawans - 40

The Battery Commander (BC) remained with the Regiment Headquarters at Srinagar (with the

remaining part of the Battery) as per the orders of the commanding Officer. These was a vehicle

with the part of the Battery which was deployed at high altitude to assist in the daily

administration of the troops like collection of ration, stores for preparation of defences, water, and

ferrying of personnel from one place to another. The vehicle could could go only upto a limited

number of places due to bad road conditions and step gradients. Only one driver was kept for this

vehicle to reduce administrative problems due to more number of personnel. The vehicle

completed about 35 to 40 kms. of running daily in its routine commitments.

The part had just been inducted about two weeks back. The defences were being prepared

which involved lot of effort in digging of hardened ground due to the cold winter months of

November. The defence stores were to collected, once the digging was complete, from another

Engineering Unit located about 5 kms. to the rear. The roads were treacherous; with a number of

stones and slides falling down occasionally during a drizzle due to precipitation in atmosphere,

there were steep gradients, narrow roads with sheer falls on one side due to the road having been

cut into the side of hills. The digging was complete by end November. In the month of December,

snow fall at that location was expected any time, as it had already started snowing in the higher

reaches and tops of mountains. The digging had been completed in a record time of two weeks.

The party under the stewardship of the young officer had done a commendable job.

In the first week of December, the only driver of the vehicle reported pain in the chest and

problem in breathing. He was evacuated by helicopter the next day with instructions to inform the

unit to send another driver for the vehicle. It took about three days for any one to reach this area,

with staying of two nights enroute in order to acclimatize by stages. The detachment was to be

without any driver for about three days. Another driver was detailed to proceed to this area, after

having been medically examined and found it. A day after the dispatch of the driver, the young

officer with this party arrived in the unit and reported that the vehicle had fallen from a hill-side

road and was completely damaged. The office was in a complete state of disarray and shock.

What actually had happened, goes something like this.

Examination Paper of Semester III

After the first driver of the vehicle was evacuated, the weather started turning bad and it

seemed that it was going to snow that day. The officer realised that in case of snow fall all the

efforts put in by the troops would go waste, if the dug-ins were not covered. Realising this, he

borrowed a driver of an ambulance from a local medical unit to direct his vehicle for collection of

defence stores. After the stores had been collected and dumped at the site of defences, the vehicle

was being driven back to the party’s location. Before it could reach this location, it had to

negotiate a dusty and steep track. At a steep climb the vehicle stalled and got switched off. All the

men got down, prevented the vehicle from reversing by putting stones behind the wheels and

started checking what had gone wrong.

After the check on the engine had been carried out, the bonnet cover slipped off the hands of

the driver while closing it and fell to closing position with a bang. Because of the jerk thus

created, the stones placed behind the vehicle slipped off. It was later discovered that there was

glassy smooth layer of ice under the thin layer of dirt which could not hold the stones firmly and

they slipped off, with the result, that the vehicle moved backward and toppled thrice and stopped

upside down because of the obstruction created by a big boulder. As thee was no one in the

vehicle, thee were no injuries to personnel. On close inspection by the officer, it was found that

the vehicle body, cabin, bonnet, steering wheel and two of the four wheels were badly damaged.

The officer, being quite young and inexperienced, could not ascertain the real condition of the

engine and chassis. He thought those too were damaged, whereas because of some providential

chance, the chassis and engine remained intact.

The BC was given the responsibility of getting the vehicle back to the unit. He was given a

vehicle fitter and recovery vehicle with a driver. The BC took two more Non-Commissioned

Officers (NCOs) and proceeded to the location to retrieve the vehicle, it took two days to reach

with a few hours of the last leg of the journey in complete darkness in that snow bound area with

treacherous slippery roads. On reaching the location, the Commanding Officer of the local unit,

who happened to be the Station Commander of the sector, expressed his unhappiness on their

taking such a great risk. With the assistance of all ranks of the unit, who came in willingly, it took

two days to get the vehicle out of the boulder strewn area on to a track. It was a minor military

operation in itself in the hostile terrain, and inclement weather of high altitude. The troops and

officer had a very good rapport with those of the local unit and there was not much of a problem

in getting the men of that unit to assist.

While coming back, the hazards of night journey were very obvious. There was a thick layer

of snow on the road with slope towards the khuds as layers after layers kept on accumulating,

freezing before the water could roll down the complete slope. There were steep falls on one side.

Both these phenomena, peculiar to hilly terrain, were not very discernible because of the

darkness. The headlights of the vehicles exposed very little. There were frozen nalas where the

vehicle would skid, aligning itself in the direction of the frozen nala, which tended to prove quite

dangerous at times. At such places, the few troops and officer available would get down , push

the vehicle to keep it aligned to the road and in turn slip down themselves on the frozen snow,

most of the times face-down , in an attempt to push the vehicle. Though the situation was quite

grave, it sometimes bordered on being humorous with everyone laughing spontaneously. At one

place, the BC pushing the vehicle to keep its tail and aligned to the direction of road , fell down,

slipped a few feet down the frozen nala and landed up head down in an frozen khud about five

feet deep. But for the direction of landing, the slip and fall could have proved quite dangerous.

There was complete silence. The vehicle was gently stopped on the snow itself, secured with

pegs along the wheels and rescue operation commenced for the ditch. There were several

humorous seamarks by the BC and the tension was relieved at once, with troops working on the

vehicle with renewed vigour and strength once again.

At another place, the recovery vehicle with the damaged vehicle behind it at suspension toe

slipped, but because of the dexterity of the driver, it was saved from going down a nala by putting

it on the left. The BC himself was in the recovery vehicle to give encouragement and moral

Examination Paper of Semester III

support to the driver, sharing all the risks which his troops were facing. He did all that the troops

did, while directing, controlling and executing. The party with the vehicle, reached the unit

location on the evening of the second day after starting from a high altitude area. The problem of

recovery of the vehicle being resolved, the question of enquiry into the cause of accident arose.

An enquiry into such an accident would have caused embarrassment to all those in authority in

the unit and also the officers and jawans of the sub-unit/battery. Meanwhile, the inspection of the

vehicle was carried out to assess the extent of damage. It was found that the engine and chasis

were intact and the rest of the items of the body or fitment were damaged, either lightly or

severely. To avoid embarrassment to the unit and loss to the exchequer, as well as in view of the

administrative difficulties, the BC decided to have the vehicle put on road with the units’ efforts

and at the earliest. Meanwhile, the cabin-hood of the vehicle had been purchased for about Rs 650

and was paid for by the BC, from his own pocket, thus setting an example to others. The JCO and

jawans were also keen to pay for other damages. The offer was appreciated but declined. The

Officer-in-charge of the local Army Workshop happened to be an officer with commendable

helping attitude, positive bent of mind and with an understanding of peculiarities and problems of

the area where such accidents were quite frequent and possible. When approached to assist, he

listened to the whole incident very sympathetically and promised to assist in whatever way he

could. This officer was a contemporary of the unit in a previous station and had excellent

relations and interaction with the unit. Some items were offered by the workshop officer and

replaced accordingly. The vehicle was made roadworthy again within a fortnight and put on road

for duty. All the enquiries were dispensed with and there was no loss of face by anyone at any

level. It is pertinent to mention that it had snowed in that location as soon as the recovery party

came out of the hills.

1. Which factors contributed to motivate the troops to go ahead for such a difficult task as

recovering a damaged vehicle from such a difficult and treacherous terrain and getting it

repaired in such a short time?

2. Which incidents indicate the importance of good interpersonal relationships with juniors,

peers and superiors and what is the importance of good interpersonal relationships?

Caselet 2

Carrier Corp. is using data mining to profile online customers and offer them cool deals on air

conditioners and related products. By using services from WebMiner, Inc., the air-conditioning,

heating, and refrigeration equipment maker has turned more Web visitors into buyers, increasing

per-visitor revenue from$1.47 to $37.42.

Carrier, part of $26 billion United Technologies Corp., began selling air conditioners, air

purifiers, and other products to consumers via the Web in 1999. However, it sold only about

3,500 units that year, says Paul Berman, global e-business manager at the Farmington,

Connecticut, company. Not knowing just who its customers were and what they wanted was a big

part of the problem. “We were looking for ways to raise awareness [of Carrier’s Web store] and

convert Internet traffic to sales,” Berman says.

Last year, Carrier gave WebMiner a year’s worth of online sales data, plus a database of

Web surfers who had signed up for an online sweepstakes the company ran in 1999. WebMiner

combined that with third-party demographic data to develop profiles of Carrier’s online

customers. The typical customer is young (30 to 37), Hispanic, and lives in an apartment in an

East Coast urban area.

Examination Paper of Semester III

WebMiner matched the profiles to ZIP codes and developed predictive models. Since

May of 2002 Carrier has enticed visitors to its Web site, with discounts. When they type in their

ZIP codes, WebMiner establishes a customer profile and pops up a window that offers

appropriate products, such as multiroom air conditioners for suburbanites or compact models for

apartment dwellers. “It’s the first time we’ve intelligently delivered data-driven promotions,”

Berman says.

Online sales have exceeded 7,000 units this year, Berman says, compared with 10,000

units for all of last year. Carrier chose the WebMiner service because it was quick to implement

and is relatively inexpensive - $10,000 for installation and a $5 fee to WebMiner for each unit

sold, compared with 6-figure alternatives.

1. The DM application used by Carrier was one that was predictive in nature. Could a

descriptive model also be used? How would you use it, and what outputs would you except?

Would they be of any use to Carrier?

2. What other data-driven promotions could Carrier come up with using other data mining

techniques?

3. What manufacturing-driven applications can Carrier implement using data mining?

4. What finance-driven applications can Carrier implement using data mining?`

END OF SECTION B

Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)

• This section consists Long Questions.

• Answer all the questions.

• Each question carries 15 marks.

1. Explain in detail “Knowledge Management Systems Life Cycle” and its various approaches?

2. What do you mean by “Knowledge Codification” and its importance?

END OF SECTION C

---------------------------------------------------------------***-------------------------------------------------------

Examination Paper of Energy Management

IIBM Institute of Business Management 1

IIBM Institute of Business Management

Examination Paper MM.100

Energy Management

Section A: Objective Type (30 Marks)

 This section consists of Multiple Choice Questions and Short Questions

 Answer all the questions

 Part one carry 1 mark each and Part Two questions carry 5 marks each.

Part One:

1) The audit that focused on evaluating the energy consumption pattern is a

a. Preliminary Audit c. Detailed Audit

b. Sound Energy Audit d. Efficiency Audit

2) Energy Crops are also known as _________________

3) When plant matter is heated but not burnt to break into solid, liquid and gas is which type of convention

a. Chemical Convention c. Biochemical Convention

b. Thermo chemical Convention d. Residual Convention

4) An example of a simple passive space heating technology is the ________________

5) To make solar design effective which of the following is not followed

a. A building should have large areas of glazing facing the sun.

b. Certain features should be adopted for equal distribution of heat throughout the building.

c. A building should be sufficient to allow heat storage.

d. A building should have proper landscaping to allow direct sun to the building.

6) It is the most common type of solar panel for full solar power systems

a. Unframed Rigid Panels c. Flexible Panels

b. Solar Roofing d. Framed Rigid Panels

7) Low Peak Coincidence Factor is which of the following barrier for Solar Power Development

a. Market Related Barrier c. Economical & Technological Barrier

b. Institutional Barrier d. Ecological Barrier

8) LEED is a _________________________________

9) ________________ is a semi – autonomous body within the OECD

10) SRP stands for ______________________

Examination Paper of Energy Management

IIBM Institute of Business Management 2

Part Two:

1. Write a short note on ‘Energy Consumption’?

2. Differentiate between ‘Space Heating and Space Cooling’?

3. Write a short note on ‘Crop Drying’?

4. What is a ‘Solar Thermal Program’?

Section B: Caselets (40 Marks)

 This section consists of Caselets

 Answer all the questions

 Each Caselet carries 20 marks each.

 Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 Words)

Caselet 1

New South Energy, a subsidiary of Calpine Corp., and Suez Energy North America has asked the Mississippi Public Service Commission to delay Entergy Corp’s purchase of the 480 – MW Attala plant. Entergy agreed in March to purchase the natural gas – fired plant located in Attala. Country, Miss., from Central Mississippi Generating Co., for $ 88 million. But it asked Cleco Corp., to purchase the transmission infrastructure associated with the plant. The two companies want the public service commission to require Entergy to go through the request for proposals process to show that the plant offers the best value to Mississippi ratepayers. “We do not necessarily oppose the acquisition. But what’s the rush?” a New South spokesman said. The price is good until next October, so New South and Suez are asking for proof that in today’s market it is the best deal for ratepayers. “They should let other bidders have a chance,” the spokesman said.

The Mississippi PSC held hearings on the sale of the plant on Wednesday.

Getting the sale approved immediately does have an advantage for Entergy. If it is approved before early February it will exempt the sale from the Federal Energy Regulations Commission’s jurisdiction. The energy bill signed by President Bush in August gives FERC jurisdiction over such asset – only sales beginning in February.

By separating the plant from the transmission infrastructure, the sale was exempted from FERC’s jurisdiction under current rules. FERC is more likely to look at whether the sale of the asset has market power or transmission implications.

The PSC’s staff said that based on information provided by Entergy, it appears the acquisition of Attala is in the public interest and represents a unique opportunity for Entergy to upgrade its aging generation fleet at a price that is in line with recent sales of similar units and below what it would cost to build a new unit.

END OF SECTION A

Examination Paper of Energy Management

IIBM Institute of Business Management 3

It has concerns, however, over Entergy’s plan to recover the cost of the plant through rider to its existing power management schedule. “The recovery of each plant should be addressed individually,” the staff said.

The staff is also concerned about “piecemeal ratemaking,” meaning that certain costs are considered in isolation rather than looking at total costs. It cited concerns that Entergy would try to recover operations and maintenance costs under the rider when it is already included in base rates, and that certain revenues related to the newly acquired plant will not be considered when setting rates.

Questions

Q1. Write a note on ‘Piecemeal Ratemaking?

Q2. What are the advantages of the Acquisition of Entergy Corp’s by Mississippi Public Service Commission?

Caselet 2

Electricity is a vital energy input for economic development of any country and helps to alleviate many of the concerns facing the world, today in a distinctive manner. It is available from various sources such as conventional and non – conventional sources at a reasonable cost. The electricity generation in India has indicated four times increase i.e., from 120.8 billion KWH in 1980 – 81 to about 650 billion KWH in 2004 – 2005. It is very interesting to note that among the conventional sources involved in the process of electricity generation, the share of thermal energy has been significant indicating the growth from 61.3 billion KWH to 700 billion KWH during 1980 – 81 to 2005. The other sources of energy i.e., hydro energy and nuclear energy have been playing an insignificant role in electricity generation. The basic input of electricity generation, i.e., coal is causing for many pollutants like sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, carbon dioxide and particulate matter have a severe damaging effect on mankind and nature. Thus fuel substitution is very crucial for reducing the adverse impact on environment in the process of electricity generation. The non – conventional sources of energy like solar energy, wind energy, biomass, geothermal etc., can be used as substitute energies to electricity generation without any adverse impact on environment. Moreover, these renewable sources of energy are both economically viable and environmentally preferable alternatives to fossil fuels. Apart from this, the government also should involve in environmental matters and protect the public interest in order to maintain pollution free environment. A strong national energy policy and legislative acts should be formulated for a pollution free environment. The various alternative options if emphasized by the government, such as, adoption of energy efficiency measures, economic policies and technology can stabilize the environmental pollution over a period of time.

Questions

Q1. Write a note on ‘Electricity Generation in India’?

Q2. What are the various substitutes adopted by government to prevent Environmental Pollution?

END OF SECTION B

Examination Paper of Energy Management

IIBM Institute of Business Management 4

Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)

 This section consists of Long Questions

 Answer all the questions

 Each question carries 10 marks each.

 Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 200 to 250 Words)

1. Write a note on the components of Energy sector?

2. What are the recent trends of Clean Energy?

3. What is Biomass? State the different kinds of Biomass?

END OF SECTION C

Examination Paper of Energy Management

IIBM Institute of Business Management 5

IIBM Institute of Business Management

Examination Paper MM.100

Renewable Energy

Section A: Objective Type (30 Marks)

 This section consists of Multiple Choice Questions and Short Questions

 Answer all the questions

 Part one carry 1 mark each and Part Two questions carry 5 marks each.

Part One:

1. Which of the following is not the non-solar renewable?

a. Tidal energy c. Geothermal energy

b. Bio-energy d. All of these

2. The component of the aerodynamics of wind turbines that is in line with the direction of the air stream known as-.

a. Drag force c. Lift force

b. Harnessing force d. None of these

3. Wind turbines that can harness wind from any direction without the need to reposition the rotor when the wind the wind direction change is called-

a. Horizontal axis wind turbine c. Both a & b

b. Vertical axis wind turbines d. None of these

4. Which of the following is the floating devices-

a. Duck c. Both a & b

b. Clam d. Oscillating water column

5. WECS stands for _________________________

6. OWC stands for ________________________________________

7. Which of the following is the low-temperature solar energy applications-

a. Domestic water heating c. Active solar heating

b. Domestic space heating d. Both a & b

8. OTEC stands for ___________

9. SSH stands for ___________

10. Which of the following provide electricity for remote houses, farms and remote communities, and for charging batteries on boats is known as-

Examination Paper of Energy Management

IIBM Institute of Business Management 6

a. Small scale hydroelectricity c. Small-scale systems

b. Small-scale turbines d. Small-scale industries

Part Two:

1. Write a short note on ‘Wind Turbine’?

2. Discuss the varieties of solar heating system.

3. Explain the Physical principles of wave energy?

4. What is the small-scale hydroelectricity?

Section B: Caselets (40 Marks)

 This section consists of Caselets

 Answer all the questions

 Each Caselet carries 20 marks each.

 Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 Words)

Caselet 1

This a truly a ambitious project and a showpiece of co-operation between the state Government of Rajasthan, the Government of India, the World Bank and the Government of Germany getting together to strike a blow to renewable energy.

The project in question is a 140 MW Integrated Solar Combined Cycle (ISCC) power plant with a solar component of 35 MW and a combined cycle power plant of 105 MW in Jodhpur district in Rajasthan. The combined cycle plant will use naphtha as the fuel, and a back-up plant of 35 MW will also lend a helping hand when the sun is not shining.

The total cost of the project works out to eight hundred and seventy-one crore rupees- a hefty capital cost of six crore thirty lakh rupees per MW while a stand-alone naphtha based plant will cost less than four crore rupees a MW. The trick here is how the project is being financed to make it viable.

 The Government of India will provide a grant of fifty crore rupees.

 The Government of Rajasthan will pitch in with an equity contribution of fifty crore rupees and a loan component of two hundred crore rupees.

 The World Bank through its Global Environment Facility will grant US dollars 49 million or two hundred and thirty-five crore rupees.

 The Government of Germany will add a “cheap” long-term loan of twenty-five crore Deutsche Marks or five hundred crore rupees.

END OF SECTION A

Examination Paper of Energy Management

IIBM Institute of Business Management 7

Total “aid” in terms of grants and easy loan works out to close to one thousand crore rupees for an eight hundred and seventy-one crore rupee project!

Most of the time, the “green” and “clean” showcase project will be running on naphtha, a dirty oil based fuel, which negates all that green activists stand for. That is simply because the sunlight won’t be around at the convenience of green activists. Of course, economists would be more concerned with the opportunity cost of using one lakh seventy thousand tones each year of naphtha in this “solar” energy project!

Required

Q 1. How to Generate Solar Energy using Naptha? Explain?

Caselet 2

Energy plays a vital role in our day to day life. Energy consumption and production affect the local and global environment. Energy is mainly produced from fossil fuels and a sustainable development in the production of energy is a situation in which the future does not get harmed in any way. However, the use of fossil fuels will not help promote this much – longed – for sustainable development as fossil fuels when burned release a lot of energy into the atmosphere, which may lead to environmental damage.

The sustainable energy sources must be tapped to change the energy pattern used by the consumers, for which renewal energy sources like wind, sunlight and water need to be tapped and stored. The use of renewable energy is cleaner and safer for the environment. Various countries have started taking initiatives in building sustainable renewal energy resources, thereby, throwing open employment to the youth.

The adoption of renewable energy resources is difficult in poor countries due to lack of education, or inaccessibility of technology, or lack of institutional capacity for promoting renewable energy or lastly due to high financial costs. The environment of the youth can be roped in for the task of developing renewable resources after necessary coaching. Empowering the youth will help to reach a wider spectrum of the community in the development process of renewable energy resources.

The environment of the youth in such enterprises will tackle not only the issue of youth unemployment but will also promote environmentally sustainable renewable energy development. The rural youth need a conducive environment for the successful and continued implementation of renewable energy projects. In order to remote off –grid renewable energy, close and continuous engagement with local community members is essential. Thus, if the stakeholders are the ones who are developing and operating these enterprises, it will ensure viability, sustainability and effective operation in these enterprises.

The various renewable energy technologies available are not cost – effective and technically viable. However, most forms of renewable energy still have a significant way to go. The implementation of renewable energy projects can deliver clear benefits to developing countries provided they use efficient technologies. In this case, the technical know – how is invariably transferred from the experienced and developing countries to most of the less developed or developing countries.

Questions

Q 1. What is Renewable Energy and state the Sustainable Development to it?

Q2. How could renewable energy help in providing opportunities to the youth?

Examination Paper of Energy Management

IIBM Institute of Business Management 8

Q3. Write a note on ‘Adoption of Renewable Energy’?

Q4. What are the issues in harnessing Renewable Energy?

\

Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)

 This section consists of Long Questions

 Answer all the questions

 Each question carries 15 marks each.

 Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 200 to 250 Words)

1. Define Photovoltaic’s (PV). Explain its basic principles of silicon PV?

2. What is wave energy? Discuss the environmental impact of wave energy?

S-2-311012

END OF SECTION B

END OF SECTION C

Examination Paper of Semester III

IIBM Institute of Business Management 1

IIBM Institute of Business Management

Semester-III Examination Paper MM.100

Computer Fundamentals

Section A: Objective Type (30 marks)

• This section consists of Multiple Choice questions & Short Answer type questions.

• Answer all the questions.

• Part One questions carry 1 mark each & Part Two questions carry 5 marks each.

Part One:

Multiple Choices:

1. Number system is of

a. 1 type

b. 2 types

c. 3 types

d. 4 types

2. A logic gate operate on

a. 1input signal to produce output

b. 1 or more input signals to produce output

c. Memory

d. None of the above

3. Cache memory is

a. Small memory

b. Volatile memory

c. Extremely fast

d. Both (a) & (c)

4. Secondary storage of a computer system is

a. Volatile

b. Non-volatile

c. Reliable

d. Non-reliable

5. Magnetic disk is

a. Memory device

b. Indirect-access storage device

c. Direct-access storage device

d. None of the above

Examination Paper of Semester III

IIBM Institute of Business Management 2

6. Linker is a software tool that takes

a. Decision

b. Execution

c. Multiple object program files of any software

d. Both (a) & (b)

7. Computer network is a network of computer that

a. Are geographically distributed

b. Programe wise distributed

c. Both (a) & (b)

d. None of the above

8. Topology refer to

a. Way in which the programs are links

b. Way in which the network’s nodes are linked together

c. Both (a) & (b)

d. None of the above

9. WWW refers to

a. World wide web

b. World wise web

c. World wild web

d. World west web

10. Media center computer is

a. General purpose electronic equipment for homes

b. General purpose electronic equipment for offices

c. General purpose electronic equipment for Theaters

d. None of the above

Part Two:

1. Write a short notes on “The OSI Model”?

2. Write short notes on “Touch screen”?

3. What is “Open Source Software”?

4. Write short notes on “Laser printers”?

END OF SECTION A

Examination Paper of Semester III

IIBM Institute of Business Management 3

Section B: Caselets (40 marks)

• This section consists of Caselets.

• Answer all the questions.

• Each caselet carries 20 marks.

• Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 200 to 250 words).

Caselet 1

Over the past two years Linux has spread like wildfire through corporate data centers. Companies

once dependent on expensive proprietary systems from Sun, IBM, or Hewlett-Packard have replaced

them with dirt-cheap Dell or no-name servers that are Intel powered and loaded with the Linux

operating system. Linux now runs almost 15 percent of all servers and is growing at about 23 percent

a year. And even mainframe systems have joined in, with IBM estimating that over 10 percent of its

mainframe sales are for running Linux applications.

Though PC users haven’t switched to Linux – less than 1 percent of all computers run Linux – a

2002 survey by CIO magazine found that almost 30 percent of chief technologists were considering

moving their companies’ PCs to a Linux PC operating system like Lindows. Wal-Mart, which began

selling Lindows-ready PCs on its website in September 2002, had such success with that offering

that by Christmas it was having trouble meeting demand. Almost every major PC electronics maker,

from HP in printers to Epson in scanners, is making sure it has Linux-compatible offerings. And Sun

has poured millions of dollars into its Star Office software suite, which gives Linux users programs

that work like – and more important, are compatible with – Microsoft PowerPoint, Word, and Excel.

Backed by technology titans such as Intel, IBM, Hewlett Packard, and Dell, Linux is just now

going mainstream. From DaimlerChrysler to Tommy Hilfiger – not to mention just about every

major brokerage on Wall Street – Linux is gaining ground. Coming from near zero three years ago,

Linux grabbed 13.7 percent of the $50.9 billion market for server computers in 2002. That figure is

expected to jump to 25.2 percent in 2006, putting Linux in the No. 2 position, according to market

researcher IDC. And get this: Starting in 2003, No. 1 Microsoft’s 59.9 percent share in the

backwards. Even the surprise but shaky assault on Linux by SCO in its suit of IBM is not expected

to slow the steady growth of Linux.

Meanwhile, Linux is finding its way into countless consumer-electronics gizmos, including Sony

PlayStation videogame consoles and TiVo TV-program recorders. “Has Linux come of age? The

answer is absolutely, positively, unequivocally yes,” says Steven A. Mills, group executive for IBM

Software.

How did Linux make the jump into the mainstream? A trio of powerful forces converged. First,

credit the sagging economy. Corporations under intense pressure to reduce their computing bills

began casting about for low-cost alternatives. Second, Intel Corp., the dominant maker of processors

for PCs, loosened its tight links with Microsoft and started marking chips for Linux; at the same time

a resurgent IBM made a $1 billion investment in Linux compatibility across its entire product line.

This made it possible for corporations to get all the computing power they wanted at a fraction of the

price. The third ingredient was widespread resentment of Microsoft and fear that the company was

on the verge of gaining a stranglehold on corporate customers. “I always want to have the right

competitive dynamics. That’s why we focus on Linux. Riding that were will give us choices going

forward,” says John A. McKinley Jr., executive vice-president for global technology and services at

Merrill Lynch Co., which runs some key securities trading applications on Linux.

Using open-source software like Linux is a no-brainer for many companies. It’s stable and can be

fixed easily if bugs appear, and you can’t beat the price. But some companies and government

organizations are taking their commitment to open source a step further by actively participating in

the open-source community that develops Linux. When their developers write patches, modifications

Examination Paper of Semester III

IIBM Institute of Business Management 4

or new implementations of open-source software for in-house use, these organizations are releasing

that new code back to the open-source community, thereby assisting in the software’s ongoing

development.

What’s the payoff? It makes for better software. “If we find a bug or a problem, we’re interested

fixing that problem. We’re also interested in not fixing it again in the next version,” explains Robert

M. Lefkowitz, director of open-source strategy at Merrill Lynch & Co. in New York.

This is why Merrill Lunch sent the fixes it made to open-source software during one of its

projects back to the open-source community. “The way a typical open-source project works is that

there is a core team in the open-source community with direct access to modifying the code on its

central website,” Lefkowitz says. “People who want to contribute to that community submit their

code, which is looked at by a core team and integrated if found appropriate.”

For all contributions, Lefkowitz emphasizes the importance of creating a corporate policy with

help from the departments that could be affected by open-source involvement. At Merrill Lynch, an

eight-member Open-Source Review Board determines when contributing is appropriate.

1. Should businesses continue to switch to the Linux operating system on servers and mainframes?

Why or why not?

2. Should the IT departments of companies like Merrill Lynch contribute their software

improvements to the open-source community for products like Linux? Explain your reasoning?

Caselet 2

Ram construction and company’s manager like to determine the appropriate specification for a new

computer. The marketing department will use new computer to create multimedia presentations for

organization’s sales force. The marketing department will make these presentations available to

users both on the Internet and through DVDs.

Company manager had also informed Director that company’s information technology (IT)

department will support only PC-based computers and the Adobe Premiere Pro video editing DVD

designing software package. Company’s manager insists that Director specifications conform to

these standards in order to minimize long-term training and support costs.

1. Would you recommend Adobe’s minimum hardware specifications to company’s manager?

Why or why not?

2. Describe how the business needs shaped the hardware needs in this problem

END OF SECTION B

Examination Paper of Semester III

IIBM Institute of Business Management 5

Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)

• This section consists of Long Questions.

• Answer all the questions.

• Each question carries 15 marks.

• Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 words).

1. What do you understand by Computer languages and state its importance?

2. Explain in brief, what do you understand by “Application Software Packages.” Provide details

about “Spread Sheet Package”.

END OF SECTION C

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iibm six sigma green belt answers

For Answers contact: konstantine123aaa@gmail.com

         IIBM Institute of Business Management

                          Six Sigma Green Belt Professional

Q1. A 23 full factorial design with 2 replications provides information about:

a.       Main factor effects

b.      Two way interactions

c.       Three way interaction

d.      All of the above

e.      None of the above

Q2. A 23 full factorial design attempts to prevent the effect of lurking variables by

a.       Replication

b.      Randomization

c.       Interaction

d.      None of the above

e.      All of the above

Q3. A 2³ full factor design with 2 replications per cell requires ___________________ runs.

a.       2

b.      3

c.       4

d.      8

e.      16

Q4. A 2³ full factorial design can be physically represented by which shape?

a.       Square

b.      Cube

c.       Rectangle

d.      Circle

e.      None of the above

Q5. The purpose of a full factorial design is to:

a.       Provide information on the effects of main factors

b.      Provide information on the effects of interactions

c.       If possible, remove the effects of lurking

d.      All of the above

e.      None of the above

Q6. Sigma is a statistical term that refers to the standard deviation of the process about its

a.       Variance

b.      Mean

c.       Median

d.      Mode

e.      None of the above

Use the following design matrix display to answer the question 7 -9.

Test		X1	X2		X3	CTQ
1		-	-		-	6
2		+	-		-	7
3		-	+		-	8
4		+	+		-	7
5		-	-		+	3
6		+	-		+	4
7		-	+		+	4
8	+		+	+		5

Q7. The above design matrix layout is called:

a.       Random order

b.      Run order

c.       Standard order

d.      None of the above

e.      All of the above

Q8. Compute the average effect of X3:

a.       +12

b.      -3

c.       -4

d.      +15

e.      None of the above

Q9. Compute the average effect of the interaction between X1 and X3.

2. -2

b. +1/2

c. +3

d. 1/3

e. none of the above

Q10. Purpose of a pilot test is

a.       It validates a revised best practices method.

b.      It highlights the risks (e.g., FMEA) involved in using the revised best practice method.

c.       It promotes a smooth implementation of the revised best practice method.

d.      It facilitates buy-in by the stakeholders of revised best practice method.

e.      All of the above

Q11. Purpose of “risk management” is

a.       To maintain control

b.      To minimize the risk of failure of product, service or process by using risk abatement plans

c.       To minimize control level

d.      Both (a) and (b)

e.      None of the above

Q12. Purpose of a 2^k full factorial design is

a.       To understand the relationships between a set of Xs each with only one level

b.      To understand the relationships between a set of Xs each with only two levels

c.       To understand the relationships between a set of Xs each with only three levels

d.      All the above

e.      None of the above

Q13. Capability of the process in statistical terms is defined as:

a.       Measure of voice of the Process

b.      Measure of voice of the Customer.

c.       Measure of the relative relationship between the “Voice of the Process” and the “voice of the Customer.

d.      All of the above

e.      None of the above

Q14. Randomize runs in an experimental design to

a.       Add more effects of lurking variables

b.      Remove the effects of lurking variables

c.       Deviate the effects of lurking variables

d.      None of the above

e.      All of the above

Q15. Purpose of an operational definition is:

a.       Promotes effective communication between people

b.      Put communicable meaning into an adjective

c.       Put communicable meaning into proverb

d.      Both of the above

e.      None of the above

Q16. Examples of measurement data is

a.       Cycle time,

b.      Weight,

c.       Temperature

d.      Both of the above

e.      None of the above

Q17. The term “SIPOC analysis is described as:

a.       A simple tool for identifying the Suppliers and their Inputs into a Process

b.      The high level steps of a process

c.       The Outputs of the process and the Customers ( market) segments interested in the outputs.

d.      All of the above

e.      None of the above

Q18. CTQ is defined as

a.       Critical to Quality characteristic

b.      Critics to Quality characteristic

c.       Critical characteristic of Quality

d.      All of the above

e.      None of the above

Q19. “X” in respect to a SIPOC analysis is defined as:

a.       Inputs

b.      Process steps

c.       Inputs and process steps that cause variation in the outputs of a process

d.      All of the above

e.      None of the above

For question 20 – 25 consider the following problem statement:

A customer wants to buy chocolate bars with a nominal weight of 6.0 ounces and will accept a tolerance of 0.05 ounces either side of nominal. As a supplier of chocolate bars you want to understand your process. Your process produces chocolate rectangles that are cut from larger blocks of chocolate and then packaged as six-ounce bars. Every 15 minutes, three chocolate bar are weighed, prior to packaging. The chart below shows the weights for each bar examined in a seven – hour day:

Q20. Overall process mean is:

a.       5.000

b.      6.000

c.       6.020

d.      6.024

e.      None of the above

Q21. The estimate of the process standard deviation is:

a.       0.019286

b.      1.693

c.       0.0113

d.      0.01234

e.      None of the above

Q22. LSL and USL for the above process are:

a.       LSL = 5.95 and USL = 6.05

b.      LSL = 6.95 and USL =5.05

c.       LSL = 7.95 and USL = 6.05

d.      LSL = 4.95 and USL = 4.05

e.      None of the above

Q23. Actual process yield using the empirical data is

a.       0.552

b.      0.652

c.       0.752

d.      0.952

e.      0.852

Q24. Actual DPMO from the empirical data is:

a.       45,000

b.      46,000

c.       48,000

d.      47,000

e.      50,000

Q25. Theoretical DPMO using the normal distribution is:

a.       11,100

b.      11,200

c.       11,300

d.      48,000

e.      None of the above

Q26. How might the standard deviation(S) of a normal distribution be greater than the mean?

a.       S is given by a square root, and the square root is larger than the fraction.

b.      In a normal distribution, the variance must equal the mean.

c.       If some scores are negative, the mean could be very small despite a large S.

d.      The median would have to be less than the skew

e.      None of the above

Q27. In a class of 100, the mean on a certain exam was 50, the standard deviation, 0. This means

a.       Half the class had scores less than 50

b.      There was a high correlation between ability and grade

c.       Everyone had a score of exactly 50

d.      Half the class had 0’s and half had 50’s

e.      None of the above

Q28. Suppose the mean on the final exam is 24 (of 40), with a standard deviation of 1.5. If you get a 21, how well do you do (relative to the rest of the class)?

a.       Very poorly – perhaps the lowest score

b.      Not well, but somewhere in the C’s

c.       OK – about average

d.      Nicely – better than the median

e.      None of the above

Q29. You can claim that there is a significant difference between scores from two groups if

a.       The difference between the means is large compared to the standard error

b.      The means are large compared to the standard error

c.       The means are small compared to the standard error

d.      The difference between the standard deviations is large compared to the means

e.      None of the above

Q30. The correlation between a person’s hair length and score on the midterm is very nearly zero. If your friend has a crew cut, your best guess as to what he got on the midterm is

a.       The standard deviation of scores on the midterm

b.      The mean minus the standard deviation

c.       The mean score

d.      None of the above

Q31. There is a low (but real) negative correlation between the amount of rain in a given summer and the amount the summer before. In the absence of any information except that this summer is wetter than usual, you are asked to guess next summer’s rain. Your best guess:

a.       Somewhat more than the average summer rainfall

b.      The average summer rainfall

c.       Somewhat less than the average summer rainfall

d.      The standard deviation of the rainfall

e.      None of the above

Q32. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between quality management and product strategy?

a.       Product strategy is set by top management; quality management is an independent activity.

b.      Quality management is important to the low-cost product strategy, but not to the response or differentiation strategies.

c.       High quality is important to all three strategies, but it is not a critical success factor.

d.      Managing quality helps building successful product strategies.

e.      Companies with the highest measures of quality were no more productive than other firms.

Q33. “Quality is defined by the customer” is

a.       An unrealistic definition of quality

b.      A user-based definition of quality

c.       A manufacturing – based definition of quality

d.      A product – based definition of quality

e.      The definition proposed by the American Society for Quality

Q34. “Making it right the first “is

a.       An unrealistic definition of quality

b.      A user- based definition of quality

c.       A manufacturing- based definition of quality

d.      A product- based definition of quality

e.      The definition proposed by the American Society for Quality

Q35. Three broad categories of definitions of quality are

a.       Product quality, service quality, and organizational quality

b.      User- based, manufacturing –based, and product – based

c.       Internal, external, and prevention

d.      Low – cost, response, and differentiation

e.      Pareto, Shewhart, and Deming

Q36. According to the manufacturing –based definition of quality,

a.       Quality is the degree of excellence at an acceptable price and the control of variability at an acceptable cost

b.      Quality depends on how well the product fits patterns of consumer preferences

c.       Even though quality cannot be defined, you know what it is

d.      Quality is the degree to which a specific product conforms to standards

e.      Quality lies in the eyes of the beholder

Q37. The role of quality in limiting a firm’s product liability is illustrated by

a.       Ensuring that contaminated products such as impure foods do not reach customs

b.      Ensuring that products meet standards such as those of the Consumer Product Safety Act

c.       Designing safe products to limit possible harm to consumers

d.      Using processes that make products as safe or as durable as their design specifications call fro

e.      All of the above are valid.

Q38. Which of the following is not one of the major categories of costs associated with quality?

a.       Prevention costs

b.      Appraisal costs

c.       Internal failures

d.      External failures

e.      None of the above; they are all major categories of costs associated with quality

Q39. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality expect

a.       Customer dissatisfaction costs

b.      Inspection costs

c.       Scrap costs

d.      Warranty and service costs

e.      Maintenance costs

Q40. Which of the following statements is not true?

a.       Self-promotion is not a substitute for quality products.

b.      Inferior products harm a firm’s profitability and a nation’s balance of payments

c.       Product liability transfers from the manufacturer to the retailer once the retailer accepts delivery of the product.

d.      Quality – be it good or bad – will show up in perceptions about a firm’s new products, employment practices, and supplier relations.

e.      Legislation such as the consumer product safety act sets and enforces product standards by banning products that do not reach those standards.

Q41. “Employees cannot produce goods that on average exceed the quality of what the process is capable of producing” expresses a basic element in the writings of

a.       Vilfredo Pareto

b.      Armand Feigenbaum

c.       Joseph M Juran

d.      W. Edwards Deming

e.      Philip B Crosby

Q42. “Quality Is Free,” meaning that the costs of poor quality have been understated, is the work of

a.       W. Edwards Deming

b.      Joseph M Juran

c.       Philip B Crosby

d.      Crosby, Stills, and Nash

e.      Armand Feigenbaum

Q43. The philosophy of zero defects is

a.       The result of Deming’s research

b.      Unrealistic

c.       Prohibitively costly

d.      An ultimate goal; in practice, 1 to 2% defects is acceptable

e.      Consistent with the commitment to continuous improvement

Q44. Regarding the quality of design, production, and distribution of products, an ethical requirement for management is to

a.       Determine whether any f the organization’s stakeholders are violated by poor quality products

b.      Gain ISO 14000 certification for the organization

c.       Obtain a product safety certificate from the Consumer Product Safety Commission

d.      Have the organization’s legal staff write disclaimers in the product instruction booklets

e.      Compare the cost of products liability to the external failure cost

Q45. If 1 million passengers pass through the St. Louis Airport with checked baggage each month, a successful Six Sigma program for baggage handling would result in how many passengers with misplaced luggage?

a.       3.4

b.      6.0

c.       34

d.      2700

e.      6 times the monthly standard deviation of passengers

Q46. Which of the following is true about ISO 1400 certification?

a.       It is not a prerequisite for ISO 9000 certification.

b.      It deals with environmental management.

c.       It offers a good systematic approach to pollution prevention.

d.      One of its core elements is life-cycle assessment.

e.      All of the above are true.

Q47. To become ISO 9000 certified, organizations must

a.       Document quality procedures

b.      Have an onsite assessment

c.       Have an ongoing series of audits of their products or service

d.      All of the above

e.      None of the above

Q48. Which of the following statements regarding “Six Sigma” is true?

a.       The term has two distinct meanings – one is statistical; the other is a comprehensive quality system.

b.      Six Sigma means that about 94 percent of a firm’s output is free of defects.

c.       The Six Sigma program was developed by Toyota in the 1970’s.

d.      The Six Sigma program is for manufacturing firms, and is not applicable to services.

e.      Six Sigma certification is granted by the International Standards Organization (ISO)

Q49. Building high-morale organizations and building communication network that incluse employees are both elements of

a.       ISO 9000 certification

b.      Six Sigma certification

c.       Employee empowerment

d.      Taguchi methods

e.      The tools of TQM

Q50. The process of identifying other organizations that are best at some facet of your operations and then modeling your organization after them is known as

a.       Continuous improvement

b.      Employee empowerment

c.       Benchmarking

d.      Copycatting

e.      Patent infringement.

Q51. Six sigma quality performance means ___________________ defects per millions.

a.       0.4

b.      1.9

c.       3.4

d.      4.3

e.      3.5

Q52. Six sigma is associate with process capabilities of ___________________ which are considered world-class performance

a.       C_p = 1.5

b.      C_p > 1.5

c.       C_p <1.5

d.      C_p =1.0

e.      C_p =2.0

Q53. Who is known as the father of SQC?

a.       W. Edward Deming

b.      Joseph M Juran

c.       Walter Shewhart

d.      Philip Crosby

e.      None  of the above

Q54. ________________________ can be defined as the use of problem solving techniques and quick deployment to implement improvements and then use process behavior studies to maintain the gains.

a.       Continual improvement

b.      Continuous improvement

c.       Discontinuous improvement

d.      Improvement

e.      Disorder

Q55. Six Sigma was first started at

a.       Titan

b.      Ranbaxy

c.       Motorola Inc.

d.      Toyota

e.      Maruti

Q56. The SIPOC business model provides all the following benefits, EXCEPT:

a.       Providing a framework applicable to processes of all sizes

b.      Identifying the few key business customers

c.       Displaying cross-function activities in simple terms

d.      Helping maintain the big business picture

e.      None of the above

Q57. Which of the new quality management tools is used to organize facts and data about an unfamiliar subjects or problem?

a.       The affinity diagram

b.      The header technique

c.       The AND diagram

d.      Matrix diagram

e.      None of the above

Q58. In Six Sigma road map tell the correct order for steps:

I.                    Recognition                                                

II.                   Use problem solving methodology

III.                Use DMAIC model to deploy the improvement

IV.                Identification

a.       I , II, III, IV

b.      I, IV, II, III

c.       III, IV, I, II

d.      IV, III, I, II

e.      I , III, IV, II

Q59. The purpose of “rolled through put yield” in the six sigma define step would include all of the following, expect:

a.       Spotting significant differences in yield

b.      Providing a baseline metric

c.       Using the calculation for customer analysis

d.      Analyzing a process flow for improvement ideas

e.      None of the above

Q60. Which three of the following four techniques could easily be used to display the same data?

I.                    Stem and leaf plots

II.                  Boxplots

III.                Scatter diagrams

IV.                Histograms

a.       I,II and III only

b.      I, II, and IV only

c.       I, III, and IV only

d.      II, III and IV only

e.      None of the above

Q61. In the regression equation y = mx + b, y increases with x in all cases:

a.       If b is positive

b.      If b is negative

c.       If m is positive

d.      If m is negative

e.      None of the above

Q62. If a sample size of 16 yields an average of 12 and standard deviation of 3, estimate the 95% confidence interval for the population (assume a normal distribution).

a.       10.40 < m < 13.60

b.      10.45 < m < 13.55

c.       10.53 < m < 13.47

d.      10.77 < m < 13.23

e.      None of the above

Q63. Rearrange the following steps in correct order under TOC

I.                    Subordinate

II.                  Identify

III.                Repeat

IV.                Elevate

V.                  Exploit

a.       I, II, III, IV, V

b.      II,V, I, IV, III

c.       V, IV, II, III, I

d.      III, IV, I, II, V

e.      V, II, III, I , IV

Q64. In a full factorial experimental design, factors A and B are Both tested at 4 levels. How many experiments are conducted?

a.       8

b.      9

c.       12

d.      16

e.      5

Q65. The smallest run number possible to examine the main effects of 22 factors at 2 levels is:

a.       23

b.      24

c.       44

d.      56

e.      20

Q66. The main difference between traditional kaizen and the kaizen blitx approach is:

a.       The number of people involved

b.      The place of the change effort

c.       The amount of the floor space saved

d.      The commitment level of management

e.      None of the above

Q67. A ________________ is a document stating the purposes of the project and servers as an informal contact that helps the team stay on track with the goals of the organization

a.       Charter

b.      Calendar

c.       Starter

d.      Statement

e.      Projector

Q68.Accourding to _________________ developmental sequence in small groups teams typically go through the stages of forming, storming, norming and performing

a.       B W Tuckmans’s

b.      Woodford

c.       Breyfogle

d.      Joseph M Juran

e.      None of the above

Q69. Affinity diagram are used to produce _______________ possible answers to an open ended question

a.       Only 2

b.      Only 3

c.       More than 5

d.      Many

e.      No

Q70. Horizontal communication is used in

a.       Flatter organization

b.      Fleeter organization

c.       Floater organization

d.      All of the above

e.      None of the above

Q71. Which of the following relation is correct for RPN calculation

a.       RPN = S x O +D

b.      RPN = S x O –D

c.       PRN = S x O x D

d.      RPN = S x O / D

e.      None of the above

Q72. Z charts are also called

a.       Short – run charts

b.      Long – run charts

c.       Group charts

d.      Paynter charts

e.      None of the above

Q73. Contigency tables are ____________ dimensional classification tables.

a.       2

b.      3

c.       4

d.      6

e.      None of the above

74. A mechanical assembly process has a historical defective rate of 10%. What is the probability that a lot of 50 units will contain exactly five defectives?

a. 0.16%

b. 0.17%

c. 0.18%

d. 1.0%

e. None of the above

Q75. A pizza restaurant’s order processing time is normally distributed. A random sample has mean 30 minutes and standard deviation five minutes. Estimate the % of the orders that are between 35 and 20 minutes.

a.       0.89

b.      0.85

c.       0.80

d.      0.82

e.      1.0

Q76. In Gage R & R , R & R stands for

a.       Repeat and Repeat

b.      Repeatability and Repeatability

c.       Reproducibility and Reproducibility

d.      Repeatability and Reproducibility

e.      None of the above

Q85. The formula for control limits for the c chart

Q86. Which of the following is not related with scope wide open

a.       Global warming

b.      Low attendance at ASQ section program meeting

c.       Unemployment

d.      Organization culture

e.      None of the above

Q87.which of the following is NOT a widely recognized topic area for DFX?

a.       Design for profit

b.      Design for assembly

c.       Design for reliability

d.      Design for appearance

e.      None of the above

Q88. Defect correction is an example of

a.       Value added services

b.      Non-value added services

c.       Lean thinking

d.      Standard work

e.      None of the above

Q89. Activities that perform functions that do not change the form or function of the product or service and the customer is not willing to pay for these activities are termed as __________.

a.       Value services

b.      Value added services

c.       Services

d.      None of the above

Q90. Which of the following is not included in 5W’s concept

a.       Which

b.      What

c.       Why

d.      Where

e.      where

Q91. If the probability of a car starting on a rainy day is 0.4, the complement of not would be

a.       0.4

b.      0.5

c.       0.6

d.      0.8

e.      1.0

Q92. A local ASQ section with 10 volunteers wants to form a task fore of three volunteers to send for proctor training to potentially become exam proctors. The different three- person combinations could be formed are:

a.       50

b.      80

c.       100

d.      120

e.      150

a.       0.01

b.      0.02

c.       0.03

d.      0.04

e.      0.05

Q94. Twelve randomly selected chemical packs were measured before mixing with the raw material. The weights in grams of chemicals supplied by a vendor to an organization are as follows:

7.3, 7.9, 7.1, 7.3, 7.4, 7.3, 7.0, 7.3, 7.7, 7.3, 7.1, 7.8

The weight on the pack says 7.5 grams. The approximate probability that the weight of the rest of the packs in storage is greater than 7.5 is :

a.       7.4

b.      7.2

c.       7.5

d.      7.6

e.      7.8

Q96. Value at cooking level is

a.       20.5

b.      21.3

c.       22.3

d.      23.5

e.      25.0

O97. Value at Meat level is:

a.       2.75

b.      5.75

c.       1.0

d.      -5.57

e.      -6.5

Q98. Value at marinade level is

a.       0.2

b.      1.2

c.       1.5

d.      2.5

e.      -2.5

Q99. A null hypothesis requires several assumptions, a basic one of which is:

a.       That the variables are significant

b.      The variables are independent

c.       That the sample size is adequate

d.      That the confidence interval is +  2 standard deviations

e.      None of the abve

Q100. ____________________ is a method of generating a large number of creative ideas in a short period of time.

a.       Six Sigma

b.      Brainstorming

c.       Benchmarking

d.      Performing

e.      None of the above